Tuesday, March 2, 2010

Dan Wallace on the King James


Second, the Greek text which stands behind the King James Bible is demonstrably inferior in certain places. The man who edited the text was a Roman Catholic priest and humanist named Erasmus. He was under pressure to get it to the press as soon as possible since (a) no edition of the Greek New Testament had yet been published, and (b) he had heard that Cardinal Ximenes and his associates were just about to publish an edition of the Greek New Testament and he was in a race to beat them. Consequently, his edition has been called the most poorly edited volume in all of literature! It is filled with hundreds of typographical errors which even Erasmus would acknowledge. Two places deserve special mention. In the last six verses of Revelation, Erasmus had no Greek manuscript (=MS) (he only used half a dozen, very late MSS for the whole New Testament any way). He was therefore forced to ‘back-translate’ the Latin into Greek and by so doing he created seventeen variants which have never been found in any other Greek MS of Revelation! He merely guessed at what the Greek might have been. Secondly, for 1 John 5:7-8, Erasmus followed the majority of MSS in reading “there are three witnesses in heaven, the Spirit and the water and the blood.” However, there was an uproar in some Roman Catholic circles because his text did not read “there are three witnesses in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit.” Erasmus said that he did not put that in the text because he found no Greek MSS which had that reading. This implicit challenge—viz., that if he found such a reading in any Greek MS, he would put it in his text—did not go unnoticed. In 1520, a scribe at Oxford named Roy made such a Greek MS (codex 61, now in Dublin). Erasmus’ third edition had the second reading because such a Greek MS was ‘made to order’ to fill the challenge! To date, only a handful of Greek MSS have been discovered which have the Trinitarian formula in 1 John 5:7-8, though none of them is demonstrably earlier than the sixteenth century.

That is a very important point. It illustrates something quite significant with regard to the textual tradition which stands behind the King James. Probably most textual critics today fully embrace the doctrine of the Trinity (and, of course, all evangelical textual critics do). And most would like to see the Trinity explicitly taught in 1 John 5:7-8. But most reject this reading as an invention of some overly zealous scribe. The problem is that the King James Bible is filled with readings which have been created by overly zealous scribes! Very few of the distinctive King James readings are demonstrably ancient. And most textual critics just happen to embrace the reasonable proposition that the most ancient MSS tend to be more reliable since they stand closer to the date of the autographs. I myself would love to see many of the King James readings retained. The story of the woman caught in adultery (John 7:53-8:11) has always been a favorite of mine about the grace of our savior, Jesus Christ. That Jesus is called God in 1 Timothy 3:16 affirms my view of him. Cf. also John 3:13; 1 John 5:7-8, etc. But when the textual evidence shows me both that scribes had a strong tendency to add, rather than subtract, and that most of these additions are found in the more recent MSS, rather than the more ancient, I find it difficult to accept intellectually the very passages which I have always embraced emotionally. In other words, those scholars who seem to be excising many of your favorite passages from the New Testament are not doing so out of spite, but because such passages are not found in the better and more ancient MSS. It must be emphatically stressed, however, that this does not mean that the doctrines contained in those verses have been jeopardized. My belief in the deity of Christ, for example, does not live or die with 1 Timothy 3:16. In fact, it has been repeatedly affirmed that no doctrine of Scripture has been affected by these textual differences. If that is true, then the ‘King James only’ advocates might be crying wolf where none exists, rather than occupying themselves with the more important aspects of advancing the gospel.

9 comments:

Dan said...

I see that Mr.Wallace, and you too Mr Steele, have a personal vendetta against the King James Bible.
What Wallace failed to tell you was 1 John 5:7 shows up in the Old Syriac version(A.D.150),Old Latin version(A.D.180),Cyprian's writings(A.D.250),the writings by Priscillian and Pithanasius(A.D.350),the Council of Carthage(A.D.415),Jerome,s works(A.D.450),Fulgentius'quotations(A.D.510),four different Waldensian Bibles(A.D.600-1400),and of course the manuscripts Wallace chose to use is a minuscule Greek manuscript(no.88),and (no.61 A.D.1519).
Therefore we conclude that Wallace is either misinformed or a lier. So tell me Mr. Steele where do you put your faith and trust?

Jamie Steele said...

Dan,
I don't have a vendetta against the KJV at all. It is a version of the origianl manuscripts. The V stands for version. Also "Dan" i don't put my faith and trust in a translation of the Bible. Hopefully you don't either. I place my faith and trust in Jesus Christ alone for salvation. Do you believe the KJV is the "only" Bible? I would like to know and know why? Thanks for commenting. Also, Dan Wallace has written against the very things you are talking about. You can check it out online if you want. Dan is one of the finest in the field. Also, what does Romans 8:16 mean to you in the KJV? Is the Holy Spirit and it or Him?

Jeff A. Spry said...

It seems strange that "Dan" would accuse Jamie and Dr. Wallace of engaging in a personal vendetta against the KJV (not KJB, "Dan") when "Dan" apparently sides with those who have a vendetta against other versions of God's Word.

Bibliolatry is a sin - your calf is just leather bound instead of golden.

Jeff A. Spry said...

Dan, what do you do with this comment by Dr. Wallace:

"He was therefore forced to ‘back-translate’ the Latin into Greek and by so doing he created seventeen variants which have never been found in any other Greek MS of Revelation! He merely guessed at what the Greek might have been."

Instead of relying upon Greek manuscripts, today’s Textus Receptus relies primarily upon decisions made by English-speaking Anglicans in the seventeenth century to determine our authoritative Greek text. To put this in perspective, it would be analogous to demanding that people accept a version of the Declaration of Independence that is based upon a German translation of the document translated back into English. Instead of looking at the original English manuscript, you insist on looking at the English document that has been translated from English to German and finally back to English

Your only recourse is to say the KJV is inspired above every other copy of the Scriptures that have ever been produced.

Are you prepared to say such a thing?

Jamie Steele said...

Jeff,
Thanks for the comment and what you said is so true. The King James is a good version. The premise of this post is that it is not the best translation. And in my opinion it is not by far. Also, Many who are KJV only must hold to an inspired "in the translation of" defense. I don't think they want to go there.

Scott Hammer said...

If one concludes that the KJV is the only real and inspired Word of God, must you also accept the Apocrypha as the real and inspired Word of God?

It would seem to me if the above belief is held as true, then you would be "adding or taking away from" God's Word by not accepting the Apocrypha. I base this question on the fact that the Apocrypha was in the original KJV.

Jamie Steele said...

Scott,
That is a great point. I makes you wonder how one could validate one "translation" over the other the way some KJV defenders do. With that said the KJV is a very good translation, but in my opinion it is not the best.

Scott Hammer said...

It is a good translation and I use it frequently but don't count it sinful if someone uses another "version".

Neil Bowman said...

The vendetta statement surprises me. Why is it acceptable to critique any translation of the Bible, except the KJV? It is not a vendetta- it is a desire to know the truth. I believe the Bible to be the inspired, inerrant, infallible word of God in the original transcripts. I think it is great that the KJV was made available to the common man and is as good as it is, but it is not perfect. Example: "The love of money is THE root to ALL evil" (emphasis added). This is KJV, and it is NOT a true statement! The NASB rightly puts it, "the love of money is A root to ALL SORTS of evil." There are many roots to evil - Samson's love of women, not money, was the root to his evil. If this is a false statement in the wording of the KJV, then the KJV - while a good translation - is FALLIBLE.
Also, I have also wondered: if I lead a tribe in Africa or South America to Jesus, do I then have to teach them to read 400 year old english so they can read the "right" bible, or do I translate it to their language.
May the Lord keep us teachable - for pride may be THE root to ALL evil.